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QUESTION 51

- (Exam Topic 1)
A user attempts to load a web-based application, but the expected login screen does not appear A help desk analyst troubleshoots the issue by running the following command and reviewing the output on the user's PC
SY0-601 dumps exhibit
The help desk analyst then runs the same command on the local PC
SY0-601 dumps exhibit
Which of the following BEST describes the attack that is being detected?

Correct Answer: B
DNS poisoning, also known as DNS spoofing or DNS cache poisoning, is a form of computer security hacking in which corrupt Domain Name System (DNS) data is introduced into the DNS resolver’s cache, causing the name server to return an incorrect result record, such as an IP address. This results in traffic being diverted to the attacker’s computer (or any other malicious destination).
DNS poisoning can be performed by various methods, such as:
SY0-601 dumps exhibit Intercepting and forging DNS responses from legitimate servers
SY0-601 dumps exhibit Compromising DNS servers and altering their records
SY0-601 dumps exhibit Exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS protocols or implementations
SY0-601 dumps exhibit Sending malicious emails or links that trigger DNS queries with poisoned responses According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.4 Given a scenario, analyze potential
indicators to determine the type of attack:
“DNS poisoning, also known as DNS spoofing or DNS cache poisoning, is a form of computer security hacking in which corrupt Domain Name System (DNS) data is introduced into the DNS resolver’s cache, causing the name server to return an incorrect result record.”
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/dns/dns-cache-poisoning/

QUESTION 52

- (Exam Topic 2)
An organization recently released a zero-trust policy that will enforce who is able to remotely access certain data. Authenticated users who access the data must have a need to know, depending on their level of permissions.
Which of the following is the first step the organization should take when implementing the policy?

Correct Answer: D
zero trust is a security strategy that assumes breach and verifies each request as though it originates from an untrusted network12. A zero trust policy is a set of “allow rules” that specify conditions for accessing certain resources3.
According to one source4, the first step in implementing a zero trust policy is to identify and classify all data and assets in the organization. This helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.
Classifying all data on the file servers is the first step in implementing a zero trust policy because it helps to
determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls. Reference: Zero Trust implementation guidance | Microsoft Learn

QUESTION 53

- (Exam Topic 4)
During an incident, an EDR system detects an increase in the number of encrypted outbound connections from multiple hosts. A firewall is also reporting an increase in outbound connections that use random high ports. An analyst plans to review the correlated logs to find the source of the incident. Which of the following tools will best assist the analyst?

Correct Answer: D
A security information and event management (SIEM) system will best assist the analyst to review the correlated logs to find the source of the incident. A SIEM system is a type of software or service that collects, analyzes, and correlates logs and events from multiple sources, such as firewalls, EDR systems, servers, or applications. A SIEM system can help to detect and respond to security incidents, provide alerts and reports, support investigations and forensics, and comply with regulations. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-siem
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

QUESTION 54

- (Exam Topic 1)
An organization wants to enable built-in FDE on all laptops Which of the following should the organization
ensure is Installed on all laptops?

Correct Answer: A
The organization should ensure that a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is installed on all laptops in order to enable built-in Full Disk Encryption (FDE). TPM is a hardware-based security chip that stores encryption keys and helps to protect data from malicious attacks. It is important to ensure that the TPM is properly configured and enabled in order to get the most out of FDE.

QUESTION 55

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which Of the following supplies non-repudiation during a forensics investiga-tion?

Correct Answer: C
A SHA 2 signature is a cryptographic hash function that produces a unique and fixed-length output for any given input. It can provide non-repudiation during a forensics investigation by verifying the integrity and authenticity of a drive image and proving that it has not been altered or tampered with since it was created